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May 14th, 2002, 08:17 AM
#4
CAD Guru - PC Specialist
</font><blockquote><font size="1" face="Trebuchet MS, Verdana, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif">quote:</font><hr /><font size="2" face="Trebuchet MS, Verdana, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif">Originally posted by bbtech6650:
<strong>if using tcp/ip in ur net are the addresses used in the same subnet? Are u pushing ur ip through the router to host somthing like an IIS server, therefore u have 2 or more public ip's?
Just a thought to help get u thinking 'inside' the box...</strong></font><hr /></blockquote><font size="2" face="Trebuchet MS, Verdana, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif">Ok, my router has my IP address given to me by my ISP, and the router acts as a DHCP serer, so all 3 PC's have IP's automatically given to them....no prob there, doublechecked.
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